I am wondering whether the following claim holds or not:
If a sequence of real-valued upper semicontinuous functions is a decreasing sequence and converges to $0$ pointwise, then the convergence is uniform.
This doesn't look true to me, as the answer given by David Mitra suggests the other way. https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/82766/dinis-theorem-and-tests-for-uniform-convergence#=