I seem to be a bit confused about this. Let $G$ be a Lie group and let us define the left $G$ action on a manifold $M$: $$\triangleright:G\times M\to M$$
Let $M=V$, where $V$ is the representation space (a vector space), so that for $g\in G$ and $v\in V$: $$g\triangleright v:=R(g)(v)$$ where $R(g)\in GL(V)$ is an automorphism. $R(g)$ maps the zero vector to the zero vector, i.e this action can never be free, because the stabilizer of the zero vector is the whole $G$ and not the identity.
Suppose now we want to get rid of the zero vector, so we choose for example $M=\mathbb R^d\backslash\{(0,\cdots,0)\}$. This is no longer a vector space, because it does not contain the zero vector, nor is it a vector subspace for the same reason. The above defined action could now be a free action and here is where I lost track. I have seen this in a series of lectures I am watching and I cannot understand it.
Obviously, $R(g)$ would definetely be non-linear, but by definition: $$R:G\to GL(V)$$ that is $R(g)$ is an invertible map from $V$ to $V$. How can I initially define this representation if V is no longer a vector space? Obviously I'm lacking some other definitions or something.