So the title is cryptic, but I was hoping someone could help me understand the following
This assumes a knowledge of Dedekind cuts.
Let us define $0^*$to be the following cut
$0^* = \lbrace p: p<0 \rbrace$
and suppose $\alpha \in \mathbb{R}$, i.e. $\alpha$ is a cut.
Now, presumably, $\alpha \cdot 0^* = 0^* \cdot \alpha = 0^*$
My question is the following: Is this by definition, and if so why are we allowed to simply define it? Or is this something that can be proved, and if so how is it proved?
I'm just not sure how to go about doing this one, and the reference I'm using (Rudin) says virtually nothing about it.
Oh, the other pertinent detail is the way multiplication is defined for Dedekind cuts, which (up the point I've studied) only has done so for positive reals, i.e. give $\alpha, \beta \in \mathbb{R}$, then
$\alpha \beta = \lbrace p: p\leq rs, r\in \alpha, s\in\beta, r>0, s>0 \rbrace$
This is also sometimes defined
$\alpha \beta = \lbrace \lbrace p: p \leq 0\rbrace \cup \lbrace rs : r\in \alpha, s \in \beta, r>0, s>0\rbrace \rbrace$
I.e, all the positive products from alpha and beta and everything below (and including) zero.
Since $0^*$ contains exclusively negative rationals, the above definition for real multiplication can't even be used to discuss the product $\alpha \cdot 0^*$
Thanks.