It is well known that $\mathbb{R}^2$ has a very famous field structure defiend by $(a,b)(c,d)=(ac-bd,ad+bc)$. And it also has a holomorphic structure, which makes $z\mapsto z$ differentiable but not $z\mapsto \bar{z}$. One of my friends asked me about the difference between $\mathbb{R}^2$ and $\mathbb{C}$, and I stated these two structures, but when I did it, I realized that I am not aware of the relation, or independence, of these two structures. So is one of these structures implies the other?
So, to elaborate my question more, it would be like this:
Suppose we have a holomorphic structure (of course with topology) on $\mathbb{R}^2$ which makes $(x,y)\mapsto(x,y)$ holomorphic but not $(x,y)\mapsto (x,-y)$. Now we want to find a field structure $\cdot:\mathbb{R}^2 \times \mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}^2$ which is compatible with the holomorphic structure; $z \mapsto a\cdot z$ is complex-differentiable, and its derivative is a constant $a$. (edit) And of course the operation should be continuous with respect to the usual topology. Is it always isomophic to $\mathbb{C}$?
Here I stated the holomorphic structure first, but I am also curious about the other way: defining the field structure first and finding the 'compatible' holomorphic structure. And I am also curious if there is any way to see that one of these structures are actually implying the other 'directly,' which is the fact that I am not really sure of.
Thanks in advance!
(edit) I stated that the operation should be continuous with respect to the usual topology.
(edit) I changed "differentiability" condition into "holomorphicity."