If $T:K \rightarrow L$ is a bounded linear operator between two Hilbert Spaces $K$ and $L$, then we have automatically that if $T$ is unitary, then $\lVert{T}\rVert = \lVert{T^{-1}}\rVert = 1$ by the following:
$\lVert{Tx}\rVert^{2}_{L} = \langle Tx, Tx\rangle_{L} = \langle x, x\rangle_{K} = \lVert{x}\rVert^{2}_{K} \Rightarrow \lVert{Tx}\rVert_{L} = \lVert{x}\rVert_{K}$
Then immediately from the definition of the operator norm we get $\lVert{T}\rVert = 1$, similarly we can obtain $\lVert{T^{-1}}\rVert = 1$.
However, I get a little confused when going the other way, proving or disproving the converse... (Any insight or hints are much appreciated!).