For $y'=\frac{1}{x}\begin{pmatrix}0 &1 \\ 2 & -1\end{pmatrix}y$ the solutions are given by $y_1=\begin{pmatrix}x \\ x\end{pmatrix},y_2=\begin{pmatrix}x^{-2} \\ -2x^{-2}\end{pmatrix}$ with $x\in \Bbb R,y\in \Bbb R^2$
I would like to know how they got this solutions.
I tried the following:$$det\frac{1}{x}\begin{pmatrix}0-\lambda &1 \\ 2 & -(1+\lambda)\end{pmatrix}=\frac{1}{x}(\lambda^2+\lambda-2)$$ $\Rightarrow \lambda_{1,2}=-\frac{1}{2}+/-\frac{3}{2}\Rightarrow\lambda_1=-2 , \lambda_2=1$
Than $$ker\begin{pmatrix}-1&1 \\ 2 & -2\end{pmatrix}\Rightarrow v_1=\begin{pmatrix}1 \\ 1\end{pmatrix}\Rightarrow y_1=e^x\begin{pmatrix}1 \\ 1\end{pmatrix}$$
also $$ker\begin{pmatrix}2&1 \\ 2 & 1\end{pmatrix}\Rightarrow v_1=\begin{pmatrix}1 \\ -2\end{pmatrix}\Rightarrow y_2=e^{-2x}\begin{pmatrix}1 \\ -2\end{pmatrix}$$
I guess this way is wrong
Edit:
$y_1'=\frac{1}{x}y_2 $ and $y_2'=\frac{1}{x}(2y_1-y_2)$