Following the approach you propose, I get:
$$ \begin{align}
\overline{A} - \overline{B} &= \overline{(A-B) \cup (A \cap B)} - \overline{(B-A) \cup (A \cap B)} \\
&= \Big(\overline{A-B} \cup \overline{A \cap B}\Big) - \Big(\overline{B-A} \cup \overline{A \cap B}\Big) \\
&= \overline{A-B} - \Big(\overline{B-A} \cup \overline{A \cap B}\Big) \\
&= \overline{A-B} - \overline{B} \enspace,
\end{align}$$
which doesn't equal $\overline{A-B} - \overline{B-A}$. A simple counterexample is provided by two intersecting open discs in $\mathbb{R}^2$.
On the other hand, we can prove that
$$\overline{A} - \overline{B} = \overline{A-B} - \Big(\overline{A} \cap \overline{B}\Big) \enspace. $$
Since $\overline{A} \cap \overline{B} \subseteq \overline{B}$,
$$ \overline{A} - \overline{B} = \overline{A-B} - \overline{B} \subseteq \overline{A-B} - \Big(\overline{A} \cap \overline{B}\Big) \enspace. $$
In the other direction, we have
$$ \begin{align}
\overline{A} - \overline{B} &= \overline{A-B} - \Big(\overline{B-A} \cup \overline{A \cap B}\Big) \\
&= \Big(\overline{A-B} - \overline{B-A}\Big) \cap \Big(\overline{A-B} - \overline{A \cap B}\Big)\\
&\supseteq \overline{A-B} - \Big(\overline{A} \cap \overline{B}\Big) \enspace. \end{align}$$
Since $\overline{A \cap B} \subseteq \overline{A} \cap \overline{B}$, it's clear that
$$\overline{A-B} - \Big(\overline{A} \cap \overline{B}\Big) \subseteq \overline{A-B} - \overline{A \cap B} \enspace.$$
To complete the proof, it remains to show that $\overline{A-B} - \Big(\overline{A} \cap \overline{B}\Big) \subseteq \overline{A-B} - \overline{B-A}$. This can be done by noting that
$$ \overline{A-B} - \overline{B-A} = \overline{A-B} - \Big(\overline{A-B} \cap \overline{B-A}\Big) $$
and
$$ \overline{A-B} \cap \overline{B-A} \subseteq \overline{A} \cap \overline{B} \enspace. $$
I have to agree with @Henno that it's not a very interesting result, but perhaps it's a good homework problem.