I am having trouble understanding a step in the following proof from "Metric Structures in Differential Geometry", part of which is attached below.
Here $M_p$ is the tangent space to $M$ at $p$ and $E_p$ is just a fiber of some vector bundle. $X$ is a section of $E$ along $f$. My question is how the author is able to conclude that $\nabla_{D_1(0)}\nabla_{D_2}X=0$ to arrive at the last line.
The justification is that $X$ is the parallel translation of $x$ from $p$ to $f(t,0)$ and then from $f(t,0)$ to $f(t,s)$ which is exactly the concatenation of the curves $(1)$ and $(2)$ whose initial tangent vectors are $D_1(0)$ and $D_2(t,0)$ respectively. Even though this is the case I can't quite join the dots to see why $\nabla_{D_1(0)}\nabla_{D_2}X=0$.
