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I get a $0$ for the area when I know it's supposed to be a positive value: $$\int_0^e \ln(x) \,dx $$ $$\int \ln(x)\,dx = x\ln(x) - x = [e\ln(e) - e] - [0\ln(0) - 0] = [e - e] - [0] = 0$$ How did I go wrong? I know the actual area can't be equal to $0$.

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    https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integral+ln(x)+from+0+to+e "I know the actual area can't be equal to 0." Why not?2017-02-07
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    You have it correct.2017-02-07
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    It's signed area, area below $x$ axis counts as negative.2017-02-07
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    If you wanted area, then you need to integrate $\lvert \ln x\rvert $, not $\ln x$.2017-02-07
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    @kobe Or, equivalently, $\int_1^e \ln x\,dx - \int_0^1 \ln x\,dx$.2017-02-07
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    After you ask a question here, if you get an acceptable answer, you should "accept" the answer by clicking the check mark ✓ next to it. This scores points for you and for the person who answered your question. You can find out more about accepting answers here: [How do I accept an answer?](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/3286/), [Why should we accept answers?](http://meta.math.stackexchange.com/questions/3399/).2017-02-24

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Why couldn't it be equal to $0$? You have $\ln x < 0$ for $x\in(0,1)$, and $\ln x > 0$ for $x\in(1,e]$; thus, $$ \int_0^e \ln x \,dx = \underbrace{\int_0^1 \ln x \,dx}_{< 0} + \underbrace{\int_1^e \ln x \,dx}_{> 0} $$ and the fact that the two terms cancel is not a contradiction to anything.

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    @Michael Hardy: thanks for fixing my $\LaTeX$ blunders :)2017-02-07
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Your answer is correct. If you think about the log function, it takes on negative values for all arguments less than 1, so it kind of makes sense. The main error you made, however, was taking the $\ln(0)$ which is negative infinity. What you need to think about is taking a limit as $x\to0$, see if that helps.