Working on Chapter 6.20 of Hammack Book of Proof
Show that $x^{2} + y^{2} - 3 = 0$ has no rational points.
First prove: IF $3\not\vert m$ THEN $m^{2}\equiv1(mod 3)$
If $3\not\vert m$ then either of two cases are true:
CASE $m\equiv 1 (mod3)$
$m=3k+1$ where $k \in Z$
$m^{2}= 9K^{2}+6k+1 = 3(3K^{2}+2K)+1$
Thus $m^{2}\equiv1(mod3)$
CASE $m\equiv 2 (mod3)$
$m=3k+2$ where $k \in Z$
$m^{2}= 9K^{2}+12k+4 = 3(3K^{2}+4K+1)+1 $
Thus $m^{2}\equiv1(mod3)$
So in both cases $m^{2}\equiv1(mod3)$
Therefore IF $3\not\vert m$ THEN $m^{2}\equiv1(mod 3)$
Part 2: Show general case no rational points for $a^{2}+b^{2}=3c^{2}$
$a,b,c$ are relatively prime to each other (no common factors aside 1)
By inspection, $3\vert (a^{2}+b^{2})$ thus $(a^{2}+b^{2}= 3K+0$ where $k \in Z$ ` This means $(a^{2}+b^{3})$ must have no remainder when divided by three. If $3\not\vert a$ or $3\not\vert a$ then $(a^{2}+b^{2})$ would have a remainder of $(1+0, 0+1, or 1+1)$ and violate the statement. Therefore $3\vert a$ AND $3\vert b$.
Because $3\vert a$ AND $3\vert b$ we can redefine $a=3m$ and $b=3n$ where $m,n \in Z$.
Then we rewrite $(a^{2}+b^{2})=3c^{2}$ as:
$(3m)^{2}+(3n)^2=3c^{2}$
$9m^{2}+9n^{2}=3c^{2}$
$3(3m^{2}+3n^{2})=3c^{2}$
$(3m^{2}+3n^{2})=c^{2}$
$3(m^{2}+n^{2})=c^{2}$
which means: $3\vert c^{2}$ which means $3\vert c^{2}$
This gives us a contradiction -- a, b, c all are divided by three, but we stated they were relatively prime and should only have 1 as a common factor!
Thus conclude there are no rational point solution for $a^{2}+b^{2}=3c^{2}$
final section
$a^{2} + b^{2} - 3 =0$
$a^{2} + b^{2} =3$
replace the rationals $a,b$ with rationals $p,q,m,n \in Z$
$\left(\frac{p}{q}\right)+\left(\frac{m}{n}\right)=3$
$(pn)^{2}+(mq)^{2}=3(qn)^{2}$
rename $a=pn$, $b=mq$, and $c=qn$ and we get $a^{2}+b^{2}=3c^{2}$, which we know there is no rational point solution for.
QED?
Further I'm confused by Hammack's solution/hint, as he says I should be inspecting $mod4$ results, while I believe I solved this using $mod3$

