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Evaluate: $$\iiint_{x^2+y^2+z^2 \leqslant 1} x^{2n}+y^{2n}+z^{2n} dV $$

I have tried to convert to spherical polars and then compute the integral, but it gets really messy because of the 2n power. Any tips?

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    Spherical coordinates definitely seems like the way to go. Your integration occurs within a sphere of radius $1$, which simply integrating $r$ from $0$ to $1$ and letting your angles map out the whole of a sphere2017-02-06

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First observation: it is symmetric in $x,y,z$, so by linearity we have $$\iiint_{x^2+y^2+z^2 \leqslant 1} x^{2n}+y^{2n}+z^{2n} dV =3\iiint_{x^2+y^2+z^2 \leqslant 1} z^{2n} dV.$$

Choosing spherical coordinates it becomes $$3\iiint_{x^2+y^2+z^2 \leqslant 1} (r\cos \theta)^{2n} dV$$ where $dV= r^2 \sin \theta \ \text{d}r \ \text{d}\theta \ \text{d}\phi$. Thus the integral simplifies to $$3 \int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^{\pi}\int_0^1 r^{2(n+1)} (\cos \theta)^{2n} \sin \theta \ \text{d}r \ \text{d}\theta \ \text{d}\phi = \frac{3}{2n+3}2 \pi \int_0^{\pi}(\cos \theta)^{2n} \sin \theta \ \text{d}\theta. $$ Using that $$\int_0^{\pi}(\cos \theta)^{2n} \sin \theta \ \text{d}\theta = \frac{2}{2n+1} $$ we have $$\iiint_{x^2+y^2+z^2 \leqslant 1} x^{2n}+y^{2n}+z^{2n} dV= \frac{3}{2n+3}2 \pi \frac{2}{2n+1}.$$

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    The trigonometric integral simplifies to $$2\int_0^1 x^{2n} \text{d}x $$ by using the axis symmetry at $\frac{\pi}{2}$ and substitution by $\cos \theta = x$.2017-02-07
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    My tips are: first use symmetry, then spherical coordinates, then with some Fubini and elementary integrals you can solve it.2017-02-07
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    beat me to it (+1)2017-02-07