1
$\begingroup$

I'm actually just trying to show $\phi$ is continuous by showing that it is Lipschitz. However, I believe the map $\phi : \ell^{1} \to L^{1}(\mathbb{R})$ where $\left\{ a_n \right\} \mapsto \sum_n a_n 1_{[n,n+1]}$ may also be norm-preserving. Here is what I have so far:

Take $x = \left\{ a_n \right\} \in \ell^{1}$ and $f = \sum_n a_n 1_{[n,n+1]} \in L^{1}(\mathbb{R})$ so that

\begin{align*} \|\ \phi(x) \|_{L^{1}(\mathbb{R})} &= \|\ \sum_{n} a_n 1_{[n,n+1]} \|_{L^{1}(\mathbb{R})} \\ &= \|\ f \|_{L^{1}(\mathbb{R})} \\ &= \int_{\mathbb{R}} |f(x)| dx \\ &= \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \left( \int_{-n}^{-n+1} |f(x)|dx + \int_{n-1}^{n} |f(x)|dx \right) \end{align*}

  • 1
    With $\ell^1$ do you mean $\ell^1(\Bbb Z)$ or $\ell^1(\Bbb N)$? Either way, the map is an isometry.2017-02-06
  • 0
    $\ell^{1}(\mathbb{N})$, sorry should of included that.2017-02-06
  • 0
    Any hint on where to go from there to get to $\dots = \|\ x \|_{\ell^{1}} $?2017-02-06
  • 0
    @JohnSmith it seems clear to me that $\int_{n-1}^{n} |f(x)|dx = |a_{n-1}|$2017-02-06

1 Answers 1

1

Indeed, the map is norm-preserving (and therefore Lipschitz). All that remains is the observation that $\int_{n-1}^{n} |f(x)|dx = |a_{n-1}|$ for integers $n \geq 1$ (or $n \geq 2$, depending on your $\Bbb N$) and is $0$ for other $n$.

It may seem odd that question might ask you to prove a weaker result instead of the strongest result possible, but this makes for a tougher problem. If they had said off the bat that the map is an isometry (or provided you with a reasonable Lipschitz constant), it would take less insight to prove that the function is Lipschitz after all.

  • 0
    Why is it $0$ for other n?2017-02-06
  • 0
    Because all the characteristic functions are zero over those intervals2017-02-06
  • 0
    characteristic function is another word for indicator function: $\chi(x)$, which takes on $1$ if $x$ is in the interval integrating over and $0$ if $x$ is not in the interval. For non-natural $n$ it wouldn't be in the interval just because it's $|a_n| \geq 0$ for each $n$ in the sequence of $\ell^1$? Just trying to make sure I understand correctly. Thanks.2017-02-06
  • 0
    Also, should I have $f(x) \chi(x)$ then in the step I introduce the integral as well then?2017-02-06
  • 1
    I do not understand your question at all. Note, for example, that $$ \int_{-3}^{-2} f(x)\,dx = \int_{-3}^{-2} \sum_{n} a_n 1_{[n,n+1]}(x)\,dx $$ however: for all $x \in [-3,-2]$, $1_{[n,n+1]}(x) = 0$ for all $n \in \Bbb N$. We conclude that $\int_{-3}^{-2} \sum_{n} a_n 1_{[n,n+1]}(x)\,dx = \int_{-3}^{-2}0 dx = 0$.2017-02-06
  • 0
    Oh! Okay, I understand now. Thank you for that.2017-02-06