Let $\mathbf{c}\in E\subseteq\Bbb R^2$, $f:E\to\Bbb R$ and $f$ is $C^1$ at $\mathbf{c}$. I want to prove that all tangent lines through $\mathbf{c}$ indeed forms a plane. In a lengthier but clear sentence, "all the tangent vectors of arbitrary curve on the graph of $f$ through $\mathbf{c}$ form a plane"$(\star)$.
I know that in the elementary calculus course, the way the author to prove that $f$ has a tangent plane at $\mathbf{c}$, is usually begin by first finding the tangent plane of the level surface form $F(x,y,z)=C$(the process involved using the chain rule) and then rewrite $f(x,y)$ as this form($z-f(x,y)=0$), applying the former result to get the equation of the tangent plane, and then one have shown that such $f$ has a tangent plane at $\mathbf{c}$, which means $(\star)$.
But now, since intuitively we all know that, let $\mathbf u=(u_1,u_2)\in\Bbb R^2$ be any unit vector, then the sets of the vectors $(u_1,u_2,D_\mathbf{u}f(\mathbf{c}))$ made by the directional derivative on all direction $\mathbf u$ is the all possibility that the tangent vectors of arbitrary curve on the graph of $f$ through $\mathbf{c}$ could be. So if we turn to prove that for all $\mathbf{u}$, $(u_1,u_2,D_\mathbf{u}f(\mathbf{c}))$ is contained in the same plane, then it is suffice to show that $f$ has a tangent plane at $\mathbf{c}$ right? I think this way is more direct, how can I finish this?