I have to show that some set of ODE's has a unique fix point which boils down to proving that for any $\lambda > 0$, $B \in \mathbb{N}_0$ and $r >0$ we have that the maps: $$ f_1(x) :=x - 1 + (1-\lambda)\frac{1 - \left( \frac{\lambda}{1-x} + rx \right)^{B+1}}{1 - \left( \frac{\lambda}{1-x} + rx \right)} $$ and $$ f_2(x) := \left( \frac{\lambda + rx(1-x)}{1-x} \right) \cdot \left( (1-\lambda) \left(\lambda + \frac{\lambda x}{1-x} + rx\right)^B \right) + rx^2 - rx -x $$ share one unique root (i.e. $\exists! x \in [0,\infty[: f_1(x) = f_2(x) = 0$).
I have done numeric experiments which seem to show that $f_1$ has a unique root on $[0,\infty)$, moreover this root seems to always be a root of $f_2$ as well (this is of course not a proof, so counterexamples are also welcome).
I tried to show that $f_1$ is convex, it obviously suffices to show that $g(x) := \frac{1 - \left( \frac{\lambda}{1-x} + rx \right)^{B+1}}{1 - \left( \frac{\lambda}{1-x} + rx \right)}$ is convex, i.e. $g''(x) \geq 0$, but this is unfortunately not true in general so another path has to be taken.