This "toy" problem actually came out of my research.
How does $\frac{AC}{BC}$ change as we vary $\theta$?
More specifically: let me use lowercase letters for distance from $C$. Let $\phi$ be the angle $A_1 C A_2$. I want to understand $\frac{a}{b}$ as a function of $\frac{a_1}{b_1}$ and $\frac{a_2}{b_2}$ as we vary $\theta$ from $0$ to $\phi$.
Is it possible to construct an example where $$ \frac{a}{b} ~ > ~ \alpha \frac{a_1}{b_1} + (1-\alpha) \frac{a_2}{b_2} \qquad \qquad (*) $$ where the point $A = \alpha A_1 + (1-\alpha)A_2$? In other words, $\alpha = \frac{c}{c+d}$ in the below picture.
Here's what I know so far: If $a_1 = a_2$ and $b_1 = b_2$, there is no example satisfying $(*)$, though it's not as obvious as it looks. (Proof: the right-angle triangles $CAA_1$ and $CBB_1$ are similar, so the ratio of $AC$ to $A_1C$ equals that of $BC$ to $B_1C$.)
Even if we assume $b_1 = b_2$ or $a_1 = a_2$, I don't know the answer yet.
(Two updates: some very rough simulations suggest there is no counterexample, and I think I may be able to sketch a very messy proof. Still looking for an elegant approach to this.)



