True of False: If $A$ is an $n\times n$ diagonalizable matrix, then $0$ can not be in eigenvalue of $A$
I believe this is false, because you can have a diagonalizable matrix with eigenvalues of zero. Diagonalization can fail if there are repeated eigenvalues. I am not able to think of a subtle counter-example or theorem that would make it more direct.
my counter-example:
$3\times 3$ matrix with $\lambda = 0,1$ for $p(\lambda) = \lambda(\lambda^2-1)=0$
$\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 0\end{bmatrix}$