I can't find any proof of this inequality $\displaystyle \frac{a_1^m+a_2^m+\cdots+a_n^m}{n}\ge \left(\frac{a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_n}{n}\right)^m$ .
Please any help is appreciated.
I can't find any proof of this inequality $\displaystyle \frac{a_1^m+a_2^m+\cdots+a_n^m}{n}\ge \left(\frac{a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_n}{n}\right)^m$ .
Please any help is appreciated.
I'm assuming $a_1,a_2,\ldots,a_n>0$ and $m,n$ are positive integers.
By Hölder’s inequality: $$\left(\underbrace{1+1+\cdots+1}_{n\text{ times}}\right)^{m-1}\times $$
$$\times \left(a_1^m+a_2^m+\cdots+a_n^m\right)$$
$$\ge \left(a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_n\right)^m$$
Equality holds at least when $a_1=a_2=\cdots=a_n$.
Your inequality is wrong! Try $m=n=3$, $a_2=a_3=...=a_m=0$ and $a_1=-1$.
We have $-\frac{1}{3}\geq-\frac{1}{27}$, which is wrong.
Using one of the properties of convex functions, more precisely: $$f\left( \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_n \right)\leq \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}f(x_n)$$ It's simple to test $f(x)=x^m$ for convexity.
On top of this, if $m$ is even $f''(x)\geq 0$ or the function is convex everywhere and $a_i$ can be negative and positive. For odd $m$, the inequality works for positive $a_i$ only.
I can suggest this book for further reading, it has a chapter dedicated to convex functions. If you google for it, you will probably find a PDF freely available. You will also find the $n=2$ case there, as an exercise.