The problem is the next
Proof that the identity $\left(\displaystyle\frac{dy}{dx}\right)\left( \displaystyle\frac{dx}{dy}\right)=1$ is equivalent with the next relation:
$$\left(\displaystyle\frac{dx}{dy} \right)^2\displaystyle\frac{d^3 y}{dx^3}+3\displaystyle\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}\displaystyle\frac{d^2x}{dy^2}+\left(\displaystyle\frac{dy}{dx} \right)^{2}\displaystyle\frac{d^3x}{dy^3}=0$$
First, I derivated the first identity respect to $x$, but, I'm so confussed with the variables. In this way, I can see that $\displaystyle\frac{dy}{dx}=y'(x)$ and $\displaystyle\frac{dx}{dy}=x(y)$, i.e., the function $y$ depends on $x$ and the function $x$ depends on $y$. Then, we have the next:
The derivative of $y'(x)x'(y)=1$ respect to $x$ is, if we rewrite the expression to:
$y'(x)=\displaystyle\frac{1}{x'(y)}$
$y''(x)=\displaystyle\frac{-x''(y)y'}{(x'(y))^{2}}$
But, my derivatives are correct? It is the correct via for solve the problem?