I'm reading a proof that any two transcendence bases of a field extension have the same cardinality here. It's the proof of Lemma 9.26.3 on that page, in the second paragraph of the proof, it says:
"By construction, $B^*$ is a subset of $B$, but we claim that in fact the two sets are equal. To see this, suppose that they are not equal, say there is an element $\beta\in B\text\B^*$ . We know $\beta$ is algebraic over $E(B′)$ which is algebraic over $E(B^*)$. Therefore $\beta$ is algebraic over $E(B^*)$, a contradiction. "
I understand that, but then it goes on to say that thus the cardinality of $B$ is smaller or equal to the cardinality of $B^*$... But didn't we just show that since $B^*$ is a subset of $B$, and there is no element in $B \text\B^* \Rightarrow |B|=|B^*|$?
Obviously when $|B|=|B^*|$, $|B|$ is also smaller or equal to $|B^*|$, but why don't they just say $|B|=|B^*|$ right away at that point? Is there something else going on?
Additionally, a bit earlier in the proof, we define $B_{\alpha}$ to be a subset of B, and that's why $B^*$ is a subset of $B$, right?
Thanks so much for your help!