Let $M$ be Hadamard manifold. Let $p,q\in M$ and $\{p_n\},\{q_n\}\subseteq M$ be such that $p_n\to p$ and $q_n\to q$. In a paper is claimed without proof that $$\exp^{-1}_q{p_n}\to\exp^{-1}_qp,~\exp^{-1}_{p_n}q\to\exp^{-1}_pq~\text{and} \exp^{-1}_{p_n}q_n\to\exp^{-1}_pq$$
For second and third claims we need to the definition of convergence in tangent bundle, while in this paper definition of convergence in tangent bundle is not mentioned. I looked at some books on Riemannian geometry and couldn't find any definition of convergence in tangent bundles, so I think the definition of convergence in tangent bundle should be as follow:
$\{u_n\}\in T_{p_n}M$ converges to $u\in T_pM$ if $\|u_n-P^p_{p_n}(u)\|\to0$,
where $P^p_{p_n}$ is the parallel transport map. I am right? Can anyone refer me to this definition or right definition in some book, etc?