I'm currently taking a course on game theory and I'm having a hard time understanding why, given a set of pure strategies $S_i\subset \mathbb{R}$, a mixed strategy is defined as the cumulative distribution function (cdf) $F_i:S_i\to [0,1]$.
In the finite case one defines a mixed strategy as a tuple such that its entries reflect the probabilities of playing the corresponding pure strategy. Given that, I would have expected $F_i$ to be the probability density function (pdf) in the non-finite case rather than the cdf.
Is this just a convention and it is equally fine to define a mixed strategy as the pdf? If not, can anyone explain to me why cdf is the right way to go? If it is just a convention, why do people chose cdf over pdf?
Cheers