No, consider
$$\begin{align}
A &= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 1 & 2 \end{pmatrix} \\
B &= \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}
\end{align}$$
which are row equivalent (you can get $B$ by subtracting $A$'s first row from its second row).
However, they are not similar since they have different eigenvalues (you can find a lot of properties for these matrices that are not the same, e.g. determinant, characteristic polynomial, etc, that should be the same for similar matrices). The eigenvalues of $A$ are
$$\begin{align}
\lambda_1 &= \frac{1}{2}\left(3 + \sqrt{5} \right) \\
\lambda_2 &= \frac{1}{2}\left(3 - \sqrt{5} \right)
\end{align}$$
and $B$ only has one eigenvalue, namely $1$.