First, an apology for the completely speculative nature of this question. It doesn't come directly from a textbook or lectures. I am not exactly sure if it has to do with measure theory, but if it doesn't feel free to edit.
Suppose you have two real intervals $[0,1]$ and $[0,2]$. Suppose I want to measure them, I couldn't use bijectivity because there is the bijection $f(x)=2x$ and I would need to conclude that both sets have the same measure which is absurd (at least for some applications). I could try to find a measure by comparing the number of rational points in these intervals, but it would yield the same result.
Now suppose I count the number of integer coordinates, then I get: $M([0,1])=2$, $M([0,2])=3$ which seems much more reasonable. Suppose also I take the number of coordinates with integer multiples of $\frac{1}{2}$, then: $M([0,1])=3$, $M([0,2])=5$. I could also take the number of positive integers inside the interval and hence: $M([0,1])=1$, $M([0,2])=2$ which is what one would customarily expect.
So, I have given three examples of sets that do enable us to measure in a certain reasonable way by just counting the number of coordinates inside the interval. But what is the general property that defines those sets? I believe that it is the absence of density but I'm not sure about it.