Is this statement true? i.e. If $f(n)$ is injective and $p_n \rightarrow L$, does $p_{f(n)} \rightarrow L$?? (I realize that it's technically only a rearrangement if $f(n)$ is bijective.)
My attempt at a proof:
Since $p_n \rightarrow L$, we have that, for all $n$ except $n \le N$, $d(p_n, L) < \epsilon$. Let $S = \{n \ | \ f(n)\le N\}$, let $n_0$ be the largest $n \in S$, we know there is such a largest $n$ because $f(n)$ is injective. Now we have that $\forall \ n > n_0 \ f(n) > N$ which implies that $p_{f(n)} \rightarrow L$, as required.
Is this correct? Does my proof work?