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Assume $f\colon\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ satisfies $f(x-f(x))=f(x)$ and:

1) has the intermediate value property

or

2) is continuous.

Does $f$ have to be constant?

  • 1
    If $f(x)$ is bijective, then $f(x)=c$ is the only possible case.2017-02-05
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    @mathbeing Pretty sure $f(x)=c$... (you spelled my username wrong, so it didn't ping)2017-02-05
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    "If $f(x)$ is bijective then $f(x) = c$" But $f(x) = c$ is not bijective so I guess what you are saying is that there cannot be any bijective solution?2017-02-05
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    @Winther :O Wow, I guess I'm smarter than I thought2017-02-05
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    See [this answer](http://math.stackexchange.com/a/327848/147873) which works with the same functional equation.2017-02-05

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