Solve the equation over $\mathbb{C}$ $$z^2-2z+\dfrac{1}{\cos^{2}(\theta)}=0;\quad \theta\in(-\dfrac{\pi}{2};\dfrac{\pi}{2}) $$ and Write solutions in exponential form.
my thoughts:
$\Delta=4-\dfrac{4}{\cos^{2}(\theta)}=-4\tan^{2}(\theta)$ so $\sqrt{-\Delta}=2|\tan(\theta)|$ then
$$z=\frac{2\pm 2i|\tan(\theta)|}{2}=1\pm i|\tan(\theta)|$$
In order to write my solutions in exponential form how I can get rid of the absolute value knowing that theta belongs to the interval $\theta\in(-\dfrac{\pi}{2};\dfrac{\pi}{2}) $
Add update: $$z=\frac{2\pm 2i|\tan(\theta)|}{2}=1\pm i|\tan(\theta)|=\frac{1}{\cos(\theta)}\left(\cos(\theta)\pm i\sin(\theta) \right)=\frac{1}{\cos(\theta)}e^{\pm i \theta}$$
is my proof correct ?