For every $n\ge1$, let us denote by $q_n$ the number of maps $f:\lbrack\!\lbrack1,n\rbrack\!\rbrack\to\lbrack\!\lbrack1,n\rbrack\!\rbrack$ such that $f\circ f=f$.
I have obtained the following closed form :
$$q_n=\sum_{k=0}^n{n\choose k}k^{n-k}$$
Computation of $\displaystyle{\frac{q_n}{n^n}}$ provides numerical evidence that $\displaystyle{\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{q_n}{n^n}=0}$.
I tried to prove it but didn't succeed ...
A more interesting and probably less simple question would be to compute an equivalent of $q_n$.