$\mathbf{\text {Show}}$ $\mathbf{E[\hat{\beta _1}]=\beta _1}$
I have already been able to prove
$ \hat{\beta_1}= \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n (x_i-\bar{x})}{\sum_{i=1}^n (x_i- \bar{x})^2}$
I rewrite it as
$ \hat{\beta_1}= \sum^n_{i=1} c_i y_i$
Taking expectation on both sides:
$ E[\hat{\beta_1}]= E[\sum^n_{i=1} c_i y_i]$
$ E[\hat{\beta_1}]= \sum^n_{i=1} c_i E[y_i]$
$ E[\hat{\beta_1}]= \sum^n_{i=1} c_i [\beta_0 + \beta _1 x_i]$
$ E[\hat{\beta_1}]= \beta_0\sum^n_{i=1} c_i + \beta _1 \sum^n_{i=1} c_ix_i$
In order to proceed, I need to show
$\mathbf{\sum^n_{i=1} c_i =0}$ $\mathbf{\text{and}}$ $\mathbf{\sum^n_{i=1} c_ix_i=1}$.
This is where I am getting stucked. There is no duplication since it does mot involve $Ex_i |u_i]$