Given $A,B\subseteq X$ and $C,D\subseteq Y$, prove $(A\times C)\setminus (B\times D)=(A\times (C\setminus D))\cup((A\setminus B)\times C)$.
My attempt:
$$(A\times C)\setminus (B\times D)$$ $$(x,y)\in (A\times C) \wedge (x,y)\notin (B\times D)$$ $$(x\in A \wedge y\in C)\wedge (x\notin B \wedge y\notin D)$$ $$(x\in A \wedge y \in C \wedge y \notin D)\wedge (x\in A \wedge y\in C \wedge x\notin B)$$ $$(x\in A \wedge (y \in C \wedge y \notin D))\wedge ((x\in A \wedge x\notin B) \wedge y\in C)$$ $$(x\in A \wedge y\in (C\setminus D))\wedge (x\in (A\setminus B) \wedge y\in C)$$ $$(x,y)\in (A \times (C\setminus D))\wedge (x,y)\in ((A\setminus B)\times C)$$ $$(A\times (C\setminus D))\cup((A\setminus B)\times C)$$
Is that a valid proof? Are the rules I applied for the logic operator correct? How could I simplify the proof or find another way to do it?