I was reading this answer to a previous question which concerns calculating the second derivative of implicit functions. I've got a problem with how he expands the expression. It goes as follows:
We compute, using the standard formula for $(f/g)'$, $(f/g)′=(f'g−fg′)/f^2$, and the fact that ${d \over dx} G(x,y(x))=G_x+G_{yy} \tag{$\star$}$ for any sufficiently differentiable function of two variables $G(x,y)$: $-\frac{d}{dx}(F_x / F_y) = -((F_{xx} + F_{xy}y')F_y - F_x(F_{yx} + F_{yy}y'))/F^2_y, \tag{4}$
My problem is ${d \over dx}F_x = F_{xx} + F_{yx}y'\tag{$\star\star$}$
I know is correct due to $(\star)$, but on the other hand, isn't it true that $F_x = {d F \over d x }$, and by defenition ${d \over dx}F_x = {d^2 F \over d x^2} = F_{xx}$, which is clearly different from $(\star \star)$. What am I missing?