We want to find the zero of a function, and Newton method allow us to do it : Newton Method on Wikipedia. But I don't understand how it work. The explanation goes as following : Let $x_0$ (with good conditions). Then, around $x_0$, we have that $$f(x)\approx f(x_0)+f'(x_0)(x-x_0).$$ Then, as I understand, the say : $$f(x)=0\implies f(x_0)+f'(x_0)(x-x_0)=0\implies x=x_0-\frac{f(x_0)}{f'(x_0)}.$$
The thing is $f(x)=f(x_0)+f'(x_0)(x-x_0)$ only when $x$ is very close of $x_0$, it has no sense to say that $$f(x)=0\implies f(x_0)+f'(x_0)(x-x_0)=0 \ \ !$$
Indeed, for example around $1$, we have that $x^2\approx 2x-1$ when $x=1$, but $x^2=0\not\Rightarrow 2x-1=0$. So, what are they doing here ?
Anyways, let's continue. They says that the solution of $f'(x_0)(x-x_0)+f(x_0)$ is a better approximation of the zero of $f(x)$, but why ? How is it possible ? And to finish, if we continue, let $x_1=x_0-\frac{f(x_0)}{f'(x_0)}$. Then, $f(x)\approx f(x_1)+f'(x_1)(x-x_1)$, and thus $$f(x)=0\implies f(x_1)+f'(x_1)(x-x_1)=0\implies x=x_1-\frac{f(x_1)}{f'(x_1)},$$ so, let $x_2=x_1-\frac{f(x_1)}{f'(x_1)}$, then $$f(x)\approx f(x_2)+f'(x_2)(x-x_2).$$
we continue, and we arrive to $x_{k+1}=x_k-\frac{f(x_k)}{f'(x_k)}$, and thus should converge to the zero of $f$. Why ? i.e. we should have that $$\lim_{k\to \infty }f\left(x_k-\frac{f(x_k)}{f'(x_k)}\right)=0,$$ but I don't understand why. This algorithm doesn't has sense to me. Thanks for your explanations.
