We have Brownian motion $X_t=at+oB_t$, where $B_t$ represents a standard Brownian motion. To compute expectation, I do:
$E[X_t]=E[at+oB_t]=at+oE[B_t]$
Since a standard Brownian motion is normally distributed with mean 0 and variance 1, $E[X_t]=at$
For variance,
$Var[X_t]=E[X_t]^2-(E[X_t])^2=(at)^2-E[at+oB_t]^2=(at)^2-(a^2t^2+E[2atoB_t]+E[oB_t]^2=(at)^2-o^2E[B_t]^2$.
Since $E[B_t]=0$, then $Var[X_t]=(at)^2-(a^2t^2)=0$
Which doesn't make sense. Where did I go wrong?