Is $\Bbb C$ a purely transcendental extension of a proper subfield $K$ (i.e. there is a set $S \subset \Bbb C$, algebraically independent over $K$, such that $\Bbb C = K(S)$)?
I don't think so, but I wasn't sure how to disprove it. I know that it is not true for $\Bbb R$, because (similar argument as here) $\Bbb R$ has a trivial field automorphism group but if $S$ is non-empty then $K(S) = K(X_i \mid i \in S)$ has many many field (and even $K$-algebra) automorphisms.
This argument doesn't work for $\Bbb C$, which has $2^{2^{\aleph_0}}$ field automorphisms! What would be a correct argument, then?