If i try to proove derivation of
\begin{align} F_Y(y) &= \mathbb{E}\{\mathbb{P}[W\leq y/h]\}\\ &=\int_{0}^{\infty}\bigg( 1-\frac{(y/h)^{-2/\alpha}}{R^2} \bigg)\frac{h^{m-1}\mathrm{exp}(-h/\theta)}{\theta^{m}\Gamma(m)}\mathrm{d}h\\ &=1-\frac{\theta^{2/\alpha}y^{-2/\alpha}}{R^2\Gamma(m)}\int_{0}^{\infty}(h/\theta)^{2/\alpha+m-1}\mathrm{exp}(h/\theta)\mathrm{d}h/\theta\\ &=1-\frac{\Gamma(2/\alpha+m)}{\Gamma(m)}\frac{(my)^{-2/\alpha}}{R^2} \end{align} I've try the following
\begin{align} &=\int_{0}^{\infty}\bigg( 1-\frac{(y/h)^{-2/\alpha}}{R^2} \bigg)\frac{h^{m-1}\mathrm{exp}(-h/\theta)}{\theta^{m}\Gamma(m)}\mathrm{d}h\\ &=\int_{0}^{\infty}\bigg(\frac{h^{m-1}\mathrm{exp}(-h/\theta)}{\theta^{m}\Gamma(m)}-\frac{(y/h)^{-2/\alpha}}{R^2}\frac{h^{m-1}\mathrm{exp}(-h/\theta)}{\theta^{m}\Gamma(m)}\bigg)\mathrm{d}h\\ &=\frac{1}{\theta^m\Gamma(m)}\int_{0}^{\infty}\bigg(h^{m-1}\mathrm{exp}(-h/\theta)-\frac{(y/h)^{-2/\alpha}h^{m-1}\mathrm{exp}(-h/\theta)}{R^2}\bigg)\mathrm{d}h\\ &=\frac{1}{\theta^m\Gamma(m)}\bigg(\int_{0}^{\infty}h^{m-1}\mathrm{e}^{{-h}(1/\theta)}\mathrm{d}h-\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{(y/h)^{-2/\alpha}h^{m-1}\mathrm{exp}(-h/\theta)}{R^2}\mathrm{d}h\bigg)\\ &=\frac{1}{\theta^m\Gamma(m)}\bigg(1^{1/\theta}\Gamma(m)-\frac{1^{1/\theta}\Gamma(m)}{R^2}\int_{0}^{\infty}(y/h)^{-2/\alpha}\mathrm{d}h\bigg)\\ \end{align}
In which i cannot progress more (I'm not even sure if my calculation even correct). Do i miss some properties? or anyone have a hint how to progress with this derivation?