If either of $p,q<0,$ then the denominator of the integrand is $>1$ for $(x,y)\in B,$ and the integral converges.
Suppose $p,q>0.$ In the integrals that follow, we have convergence of the $B$ integral iff the $[0,1]\times [0,1]$ integral converges. So consider
$$\tag 1 \int_0^1\int_0^1 \frac{1}{x^p+y^q}\,dx\,dy.$$
Here make the change of variables $x=u^{1/p},y = v^{1/q}$ to see $(1)$ converges iff
$$\int_0^1\int_0^1 \frac{u^{1/p-1}v^{1/q-1}}{u+v}\,du\,dv <\infty.$$
Now go back to $B$ and use polar coordinates to get
$$\int_0^{\pi/2}\int_0^1 r^{1/p+1/q - 2}\frac{(\cos t)^{1/p-1}(\sin t)^{1/q-1}}{\cos t+\sin t}\,dr\,dt.$$
This splits nicely into the product of integrals. The $t$ integral converges for all $p,q>0.$ The $r$ integral converges iff $1/p+1/q >1.$
Conclusion: Your integral converges iff one of the following holds i) $p<0; $ii) $q<0;$ iii) both $p,q>0$ and $1/p+1/q >1.$