The problem is as follows (from a multivariable calculus course, so preferably a solution without deep measure-theory):
Let $f: \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be a continuously differentiable function. We define $$\phi:\mathbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2, \phi(x, y)=(x+f(x+y), y - f(x+y)).$$
Prove that the Jordan measure (area) of any Jordan measurable set $E$ is equal to $\phi(E)$.
My experience with the Jordan measure is only integral-related, so I'm unfamiliar with any of its properties beyond the fact that it can be used to define areas and volumes. Also, I seem to remember that it can be defined analogously to the Lebesgue measure as follows:
$$\mu(E)=\inf\{\sum_{k=1}^{n}\mu(B_{k}) | B_{k} \space \textrm{is a finite sequence of open balls such that} \space E \subseteq \bigcup\limits_{k=1}^{n} B_{k}\},$$ but I'm neither sure that this is useful, nor 100% sure if it's true, for that matter. Any hint would be appreciated.