Let $X\colon\Omega\to\mathbb R$ be a continuous random variable with density function $f_X$ and let $p,q\in[1,\infty)$ such that $p
We know that $$ \mathbb E(|X|^q)=\int_{-\infty}^\infty |x|^qf_X(x)\,\mathrm dx<\infty. $$ We can rewrite this as follows: $$ \mathbb E(|X|^q)=\int_{-\infty}^{-1} |x|^qf_X(x)\,\mathrm dx+\int_{-1}^1 |x|^qf_X(x)\,\mathrm dx+\int_1^\infty |x|^qf_X(x)\,\mathrm dx. $$ Because $f_X$ is a nonnegative function, and $|x|^q\geq|x|^p$ for $x\in\mathbb R\setminus(-1,1)$, we know that the integrand of the first and third integrals are greater dan those for $|X|^p$: $$ \int_{-\infty}^{-1} |x|^pf_X(x)\,\mathrm dx\geq\int_{-\infty}^{-1} |x|^qf_X(x)\,\mathrm dx<\infty $$ and $$ \int_1^\infty |x|^pf_X(x)\,\mathrm dx\geq\int_1^\infty |x|^qf_X(x)\,\mathrm dx<\infty. $$ Now because $|x|^qf_X(x)$ is an integrable function, it is by definition bounded, so we know for sure that $f_X$ is bounded. This yields $$ \int_{-1}^1 |x|^pf_X(x)\,\mathrm dx<\infty. $$ Is this the right way to solve the question? I would like to know if there is a neater solution to this.