I’m reading the chapter on Forcing of Kunen’s Set Theory, where he discusses the implications of the Definability Lemma on the Comprehension Axiom:
where the referenced equation is:
And the preceding discussion regarding the problem with comprehension is:
[…] say $\varphi(x,y)$ is a formula and $\sigma \in M^\mathbb{P}$. Why should the set $S=\{n\in\omega: (\varphi(n,\sigma_G))^{M[G]}\}$ be in $M[G]$?
As I understand it, the Definability Lemma implies that for some formula $\psi$ in the language of set theory $\{\in\}$ we have
$$\{(p,\mathbb{P},\le,\mathbb{1},\vartheta_1,\vartheta_2): (\mathbb{P},\le,\mathbb{1})\ \text{is a forcing poset}\wedge p\in\mathbb{P}\wedge \vartheta_1,\vartheta_2\in M^\mathbb{P} \wedge p \Vdash_{\mathbb{P},M}\varphi(\vartheta_1,\vartheta_2)\} $$ $$=\{x\in M:\psi(x)\}$$
so to see $\tau\in M$ it would suffice to show $\tau$ belongs to the first set. Is this correct? How would I go about proving it?

