I am reading some paper and I am slightly confused about the way the following product has been simplified by the author:
$$ (1-x)\ln(1-x) = (1-x)\left[-x-\frac{x^2}{2}-\frac{x^3}{3}-\frac{x^4}{4}-\cdots\right] $$
He then converts this into: $$ -x + \sum\limits_{l=1}^{\infty}\frac{x^{l+1}}{l(l+1)} $$
To obtain this, I tried multiplying the terms on R.H.S. in the first equation. However, I can apparently do it in two ways. First I can multiply by $1$ in the first bracket by the whole infinite expansion and then by second term ($-x$) to obtain: $$ -x-\frac{x^2}{2}-\frac{x^3}{3}-\frac{x^4}{4}-\cdots +x^2+\frac{x^3}{2}+\frac{x^4}{3}+\frac{x^5}{4}+\cdots $$
Or I can multiply each term in the infinite series by $(1-x)$ to obtain:
$$ -x+x^2-\frac{x^2}{2}+\frac{x^3}{2}-\frac{x^3}{3}+\cdots $$ Which when simplified, gives the expression written by author. My question is, what makes the first way illegal and the second one legal? Or is it possible to show that both these methods are in fact the same thing? As a side note, first method seems illegal to me because the first series would never end.