Let: $$ \begin{align} &\space \color{red}{f(x)=x^{\alpha}} \quad\colon\space\alpha\in\mathbb{R} \\[2mm] &\qquad \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}f'(x)=\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\alpha\,x^{\alpha-1}=0 \qquad\qquad\qquad\qquad\qquad\colon\space\alpha\lt1 \quad{\small\text{ and }}\rightarrow\infty\space\colon\space\alpha\gt1 \\[2mm] &\qquad \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\left[f(x+1)-f(x)\right]=\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\left[(x+1)^{\alpha}-x^{\alpha}\right]=0 \quad\colon\space\alpha\lt1 \quad{\small\text{ and }}\rightarrow\infty\space\colon\space\alpha\gt1 \end{align} $$
Prove/Explain, why the resulting subtraction limit exists on an extra step? $$ \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\left[f(x+1)-f(x)-f’(x)\right]=0\color{red}{\quad\colon\space\alpha\lt2} $$
More generally,
$$ \lim_{x\to\infty}f(x+1)-f(x)-f'(x)-\frac12f''(x)-\dots-\frac1{n!}f^{(n)}(x)=0\quad:\ \alpha