The following is an exercise in Karlin and Pinsky's An Introduction to Stochastic Modeling:
Here is my question:
This problem seems to assume that the Markov Chain is time-homogeneous. But I cannot make sense of it. Let $(X_n)$ be the Markov chain in the model. How would one expect that the following is true? $$ P(X_4=0\mid X_3=1)=P(X_2=0\mid X_1=1) $$
[Added:] To make my question clearer, all I concern now are
- (1)how to calculate this particular transition probability
$$P(X_4=0|X_3=1)$$
- (2) why is $$ P(X_4=0\mid X_3=1)=P(X_2=0\mid X_1=1) $$ true.
For (1), denote $A$ as the event that "no customer arrive in a period" and $B$ as the event that "a taxi comes at the 4th period" (namely "service for the people at the 3rd period is done at the 4th period"). By independence of $A$ and $B$, one has $$ P(X_4=0|X_3=1)=P(AB|X_3=1)=P(A|X_3=1)P(B|X_3=1)=P(A)P(B|X_3=1) \tag{*} $$ where the last equality is given by the independence of the events $A$ and $X_3=1$. Now $P(A)=1-\beta$ is given. One needs $P(B|X_3=1)$ in order to calculate ($*$). What I was really worrying about is the question — "when did this people get on the bus?" — which should determine the "service time" $Z$. More generally, how should one expect that $P(B|X_n=1)$ is independent of $n$, in the case of which one might have $$ P(B|X_n=1)=P(Z=1)? $$
