Let $\leq$ be the usual order in $\mathbb{Q}$ and $\mathbb{Q_-}=\{q\in \mathbb{Q}: q <0\}, \mathbb{Q_+}=\{q\in \mathbb{Q}: q >0\}$. Do the following hold?
(a) $\langle\mathbb{Q_-}, \leq\rangle \simeq \langle\mathbb{Q_+}, \leq\rangle$
(b) $\langle\mathbb{Q_-} \cup \{0\}, \leq\rangle \simeq \langle\mathbb{Q_+}\cup \{0\}, \leq\rangle$
where $\simeq$ denotes an isomorphism of ordered sets.
In order for two sets to be isomorphic, there has to be a bijection between them (1) and this bijection has to preserve order (2). If we define $f(x) = -{1 \over x}$, it maps from one set to another and preserves $\leq$. So, (a) would be true.
For (b), redefining $$ f(x) = \begin{cases} -{1 \over x}, & x \neq 0 \\ 0, & x=0 \end{cases} $$ doesn't help since $0$ breaks the order. It is my suspicion that (b) doesn't hold as we run into problems trying to send $0$ between the sets. I would appreciate any comments.