I'm currently reading this paper (PDF page 5/page 111) and the following WLOG statement has me stumped:
Main Lemma: Let $K/\mathbb{Q}$ be a field extension of transcendence degree $1$ and $\ell\neq 2$ be a prime. The map $$\mathrm{H}^3(K,\mathbb{Z}/\ell)\longrightarrow \prod_{w}\mathrm{H}^3({K_w},\mathbb{Z}/\ell)$$ induced by the restrictions is injective.
Proof: Since the degree of the extension $K(\mu_\ell,\sqrt{-1})/K$ is prime to $\ell$ the assertion may be reduced to the case that $\mu_\ell\subset K$ and $K$ is not formally real by the usual sort of norm argument. Hence we may replace $\mathbb{Z}/\ell$ by $\mathbb{Z}/\ell(2) = \mu_\ell^{\otimes 2}$ in the statement.
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As usual, $\mathrm{H}^n(K,-) = \mathrm{H}^n(G_K,-)$. Here, the product ranges over all valuations $w$ of $K$, such that its residue class field $k(w)$ has positive characteristic and is algebraic over its prime field. $K_w$ denotes a henselization of $K$ with respect to $w$.
In this context, what is the usual sort of norm argument?