One way to think about this is as two separate cash-flows. The first is a straight compounded, one-time investment, which as you pointed out equates to $p_0 \times 1.6^n$.
The second is the stream of payments that you make. This is a simple annuity [more specifically, an ordinary annuity] which has a present value equal to:
$PV_{OA} = C\times \frac{1-(1 + r)^{-n}}{r}$ where $C$ represents the cash flows for each period, $r$ is the interest rate, and $n$ is the number of periods. From this we can also tell that the future value of the annuity is equal to $FV_{OA} = C\times \frac{(1 + r)^n - 1}{r}$
So, for sake of example, if you have $C = -10$ and $n = 5$ with $60\%$ compounding rate, and an initial value of $1000$ then you would have:
$PV = 1000 + (-10)\times\frac{1-(1+0.6)^{-5}}{0.6} = \$984.82$ or
$FV = 1000\times1.6^5 + (-10)\times\frac{(1+0.6)^{5} - 1}{0.6} = \$10,327.66$
Note that if you take the Present Value (PV) and multiply it by the compounding factor ($1.6^5$) you get the Future Value (FV). You can also verify for yourself, using a table, that the above relationship holds!
$$
\begin{array}{c | c | c}
Period & Beginning & After Fee \\
\hline
0 & 1000 & - \\
1 & 1600 & 1590 \\
2 & 2544 & 2534 \\
3 & 4054.40 & 4044.40 \\
4 & 6471.04 & 6461.04 \\
5 & 10,337.66 & 10,327.66
\end{array}
$$