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During the proof of Lemma 39.1. of the Munkres' Topology, it is written "In general $\bigcup \bar A \subset \bar {\bigcup A}$." But it is not so obvious to me to prove it.

Simple detailed explanation would be much appreciated.

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I only want to give a hint: From $A\subseteq\bigcup A$, we deduce that $\bar A\subseteq \overline{\bigcup A}$.

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    İ cant believe how easy it was.. Thank you.2017-02-01