This question was posted/originated after a failure of a more generic attempt here:
Let $\alpha_n$ be a sequence of positive Reals. It is known that $$\alpha_n \sim \log(n)$$
Let $\beta_n$ be another sequence of positive Reals such that, $$\sum_{k = 1}^n\beta_k \sim \log(n)$$ Can we say/prove that $$\frac{\sum_\limits{k = 1}^n\alpha_k\beta_k }{\sum_\limits{k = 1}^n\beta_k} \sim \frac{1}{2}\log(n)$$
PS : $\alpha_n \sim \log(n)$ is equivalent to saying $\lim_\limits{n\to\infty}\frac{\alpha_n}{\log(n)} = 1$