Let $A \in M_n$. Prove $r(A)=1$ if and only if there exist matrices $B=\begin{pmatrix} b_1\\ b_2\\ \vdots\\ b_n \end{pmatrix}\in M_{n1}$ and $C=\begin{pmatrix} c_1 &c_2 &\ldots &c_n \end{pmatrix}\in M_{1n}$ such that $A=BC$.
My attempt:
Let $B=\begin{pmatrix} b_1\\ b_2\\ \vdots\\ b_n \end{pmatrix}\in M_{n1}$ and $C=\begin{pmatrix} c_1 &c_2 &\ldots &c_n \end{pmatrix}\in M_{1n}$ such that $A=BC$. Then $r(B)=1$ if $B$ is not a zero matrix, and $r(C)=1$ if $C$ is not a zero matrix. Because of the following theorem: $r(X)=r(Y)=n \Rightarrow r(XY)=n$ we can say $r(B)=r(C)=1\Rightarrow r(BC)=r(A)=1$.
Now I'm not sure about the other direction... What is the assumption here, is it just $r(A)=1$? Or is it $r(A)=1$ and $A=BC$? And then what do we have to prove, that $B\in M_{n1}$ and $C\in M_{1n}?$ If so, then how do we prove that?