It is not difficult through the substitution $u=t^2$ to show that $$x\int_{x}^{x+1}\sin (t^2) \mathrm{d}t=\frac 12 \left(\cos(x^2)-\cos[(x+1)^2]\right)+r(x)$$
where $\lim_{x \to \infty} r(x) =0$, it seems intuitive that $\frac 12 \left(\cos(x^2)-\cos[(x+1)^2]\right)$ should always be able to reach $1$ no matter how far down along the $x$ axis we are. The solutions manual says that $\frac 12 \left(\cos(x^2)-\cos[(x+1)^2]\right)=\sin(s^2+\frac 14)\sin(s)$ where $s=x+\frac 12$ and then gives the following explanation
"Choose any integer $n >\frac {2-\epsilon}{8\epsilon}$ then the interval $I=\left(\frac 14 + \left(\left(2n +\frac 12 \right)\pi -\epsilon \right)^2,\frac 14 + \left(\left(2n +\frac 12 \right)\pi +\epsilon \right)^2\right)$ is longer than $2\pi$ and thus there is a $t\in I$ such that $\sin(t^2+\frac 14)=1$. But then $tf(t)>1-\epsilon$ (where $f(t)=\int_{t}^{t+1}\sin (u^2) \mathrm{d}u$) it follows that $\text {limsup}_{x\to \infty}x\int_{x}^{x+1}\sin (t^2) \mathrm{d}t=1$."
I understand why, given that $tf(t)>1-\epsilon$ for all $\epsilon$ would imply the statement, but what I don't get is why did the manual forget about the $\sin (t)$ that had come in the simplification. It is possible that $\sin (t)<1-\epsilon$ and then the argument does not work. I also understand the strategy of the proof, building a sequence of $t$'s that converge to $1$, but I cannot figure out where did the bounds for the interval $I$ come from. Is there no simpler, even more general strategy for proving this (or related) proposition?