1
$\begingroup$

I'm trying to show that the Hilbert cube is compact and want to know if I'm taking the right approach. My text defines the Hilbert cube as: $H=\{(x_1,x_2,...) \in [0,1]^{\infty} : for \ each \ n \in \mathbb{N}, |x_n|\leq \dfrac{1}{2^n}\}$

I need to show that it is compact with respect to the metric:

$d(x,y)=\underset{n}{\textrm {sup}}|x_n - y_n|$

In order for the sequence in $H$ to converge, we need each of it's components to converge.

Since, each component $x_n$ is bounded (by $0$ and $\dfrac{1}{2^n}$) for any point in $H$, a sequence (in $H$) of such points would form a sequence $(x_n)$ for each component $n$ and each of those sequences would be bounded.

Therefore, by Bolzano-Weierstrass, they have convergent subsequences.

We can show that for each sequence of points in $H$, we have a subsequence of the sequence of $x_1$s that converges, say ${x_1}_k$, we then have a sequence $({x_1}_k, {x_2}_k,...)$.

For the sequence of ${x_2}_k$s, there exists a convergent subsequence ${{{x_2}_k}_j}$. Since all subsequences of a convergent subsequence also converge, we have that both $({{{x_1}_k}_j})$ and $({{{x_2}_k}_j})$ converges in $({{{x_1}_k}_j}, {{{x_2}_k}_j},...)$.

Repeating this process ad infinitum, we get convergent subsequences for all $x_n$ so that the sequence in $H$ has a subsequence that converges as well and, therefore, $H$ is compact.

Is this correct? If it is, is that enough to show that $H$ is compact under the given supremum metric?

  • 0
    Since each point in $H$ has (infinitely) many components, in order for a sequence of points in $H$ to converge, we need to show that each of the component sequences converge. (x_n) is one such component sequence. Since each component sequence is bounded, it has a convergent subsequence. So we take such a subsequence for the first component, a convergent subsequence of that subsequence for the second component and so on. This way, each component converges and so does the sequence in $H$.2017-02-01
  • 0
    The sequence construction is similar to here: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/567335/cartesian-product-of-compact-sets-is-compact2017-02-01

1 Answers 1

1

No. This is not correct. As an aside, your paragraph

Since, each $x_n$ is bounded (by $0$ and $1\over 2^n$) for any point in $H$, a sequence of such points would form a sequence $(x_n)$ for each $n$ and each of those sequences would be bounded.

is so poorly constructed, I could not figure out what even the intent was until after I had read through the rest of the the post and had enough evidence to reconstruct it.

But the actual error in the argument is this: There is not necessarily a relation between the convergent subsequences in the different indices.

For example, the convergent subsequence chosen for $(x_{1n})$ may be $(x_{1(2k)})$, while the convergent subsequence chosen for $(x_{2n})$ may be $(x_{2(2k+1)})$. Thus the convergent subsequences for your first two indices would not ever come from the same points. There is no subsequence $(x_{n_k})$ of $(x_n)$ itself such that $\pi_1(x_{n_k})$ is the $k^{th}$ in your $(x_{1n})$ subsequence and $\pi_2(x_{n_k})$ is the $k^{th}$ in your $(x_{2n})$ subsequence.

You could try to work around this as follows:

Let $n^1_k$ define a subsequence of $(x_n)$ such that $\pi_1(x_{n^1_k})$ converges. Let $n^2_k$ define a subsequence of $(x_{n^1_k})$ such that $\pi_2(x_{n^2_k})$ converges. Etc.

But this still doesn't work. While $\pi_j(x_{n^m_k})$ is guaranteed to converge for each $j \le m$, there is no guarantee of a sequence that works for all indices. For example, it could be that $n^m_1 = m$ for all $m$. Thus any subsequence you tried for the points themselves would start out less than an infinite number of your index-wise convergent subsequences.


Since convergence of sequences depends on the tails of the sequences, you might by careful argument find a way past those obstacles, but it would be tricky to do so. I suggest you try to prove this by other means than sequential compactness.

Instead, I suggest trying to prove that $H$ is complete and totally bounded.

  • 0
    In the proof for "Cartesian product of compact sets is compact" found here: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/567335/cartesian-product-of-compact-sets-is-compact, sequences are constructed as follows: If we are given a sequence $(u_n)$ of $A$x$B$, then you can write $u_n=(a_n,b_n)$. Since $A$ is compact, you can find a sub-sequence $(a_{f(n)})$ with a limit in $A$. Then, since B is also compact, you can extract a sub-sequence $(b_{f(g(n))})$ of $(b_{f(n)})$ with a limit in B. Thus, the sub-sequence $(u_{f(g(n))})$ of $(u_n)$ has its limit in $A$x$B$. This proves that $A$x$B$ is compact2017-02-01
  • 0
    That's for just two components, but wouldn't repetition of that method work here as well? i.e. we find subsequences of subsequences That is what I was attempting here, sorry about my poor articulation of that2017-02-01
  • 0
    The difference is the argument in the other thread is for a finite number (2) of indices. It generalizes to any finite number of indices. But it fails - badly - when the number of indices becomes infinite. The cause is basically the same as what allows the intersection of an infinite number of open sets to not be open, even though the intersection of any finite number is.2017-02-01
  • 0
    Oh ok I see, that makes sense.2017-02-01
  • 0
    By the way, I pointed out the problem in the one paragraph simply to indicate something you should work to improve on in your explanations. As you can tell, I struggled too to find a way to explain my intent. When dealing with sub-indices of indices, it can be really difficult to be clear.2017-02-01