$\mathop X\nolimits_1 ,\mathop X\nolimits_2 ,\mathop X\nolimits_3 ,...\mathop X\nolimits_n $
be the sets then the set of tuples
$({x_1}, \ldots ,{x_n}) \in \mathop \prod \limits_{i = 1}^n {X_i}$ such that
${x_i} \in {X_i}$
is the product of given sets.
which is very straightforward and clear to me but I am having diffculty understanding the standard generalization of this concept i.e $$\mathop \prod \limits_{i \in I} {X_i} = \{ f:I \to \bigcup\limits_{i \in I} {{X_i}:f(i) \in {X_i}} \} $$ let me walk you through what I do understand and what I am having problem with so for this we will only consider two sets ${X_1}$ and ${X_2}$ let ${X_1}$ = { 2 , 3 } and ${X_2}$ ={ 5 , 7 }
now the product ${X_1}$$ \times $${X_2}$={ (2,5),(2,7)(3,5)(3,7) } and we have the indexing set I = { 1, 2 }
now what i don't understand is
"Another way of thinking about this is ${X_1}$$ \times $${X_2}$ as the collection of all functions from $I \to {X_0} \cup {X_1}$ such that $f(1) \in {X_1}$ and $f(2) \in {X_2}$"
1 give those functions from { 1 , 2 } $\to$ { 2 , 3 , 5 , 7 } and explain how the two definitions are same or related (straightforward one and the standard generalization )
2 give one example of product but using 3 sets containing 2 elements each using the function concept of standard generalization
3 since it is called "standard generalization" what does it explain in a better way that the straightforward definition can't